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MCCQE자격증공부자료100%유효한최신시험자료
Itexamdump에서는 전문Medical Council of Canada MCCQE인증시험을 겨냥한 덤프 즉 문제와 답을 제공합니다.여러분이 처음Medical Council of Canada MCCQE인증시험준비라면 아주 좋은 덤프입니다. Itexamdump에서 제공되는 덤프는 모두 실제시험과 아주 유사한 덤프들입니다.Medical Council of Canada MCCQE인증시험패스는 보장합니다. 만약 떨어지셨다면 우리는 덤프비용전액을 환불해드립니다.
우리Itexamdump 사이트에Medical Council of Canada MCCQE관련자료의 일부 문제와 답 등 문제들을 제공함으로 여러분은 무료로 다운받아 체험해보실 수 있습니다. 여러분은 이것이야 말로 알맞춤이고, 전면적인 여러분이 지금까지 갖고 싶었던 문제집이라는 것을 느끼게 됩니다.
MCCQE완벽한 시험덤프공부, MCCQE최신 인증시험 기출자료
지금 같은 경쟁력이 심각한 상황에서Medical Council of Canada MCCQE시험자격증만 소지한다면 연봉상승 등 일상생활에서 많은 도움이 될 것입니다.Medical Council of Canada MCCQE시험자격증 소지자들의 연봉은 당연히Medical Council of Canada MCCQE시험자격증이 없는 분들보다 높습니다. 하지만 문제는Medical Council of Canada MCCQE시험패스하기가 너무 힘듭니다. Itexamdump는 여러분의 연봉상승을 도와 드리겠습니다.
최신 MCCQE Part 1 MCCQE 무료샘플문제 (Q152-Q157):
질문 # 152
A 22-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 0, aborta 0, comes to the office at 10 weeks' gestation for her first prenatal visit. When you ask how she is doing, she becomes tearful and says she has had severe nausea and vomiting. She is not taking her prenatal vitamins regularly and feels very guilty about it. She is worried that she is harming the fetus. Which one of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient's case?
- A. Prescribe ginger tablets to be taken 4 times daily
- B. Advise her to replace her vitamin with folic acid only until her nausea improves
- C. Refer her for counselling to manage her feelings of guilt
- D. Suggest that she take cannabinoids 30 minutes before taking her prenatal vitamins
- E. Tell her she should continue to take her prenatal vitamins daily regardless of nausea
정답:A
설명:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Ginger is a first-line, evidence-based non-pharmacologic treatment for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy. It's well tolerated and effective. Addressing nausea will help her resume vitamin use and reduce distress.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Obstetrics, "Nausea and Vomiting in Pregnancy":
"Ginger 250 mg four times daily is safe and effective for mild to moderate nausea." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics > 80-1: Early Pregnancy Management):
"Candidates must treat nausea and vomiting in pregnancy using safe and effective options." Folic acid alone (A) is less effective than a full prenatal vitamin. B may help, but nausea should be addressed first. C lacks empathy for her symptoms. D (cannabinoids) is not recommended in pregnancy.
질문 # 153
A 56-year-old woman presents to your office with a 9-month history of intolerable sweating, palpitations, and periodic anxiety. Her last period was 12 months ago. She continues to have regular Papanicolaou testing with no worrisome pathology. She is otherwise healthy. Which one of the following is the most effective treatment for these symptoms?
- A. Antidepressant agent
- B. Evening primrose oil
- C. Regular exercise, weight loss and smoking cessation
- D. Low-dose clonidine
- E. Estrogen in combination with progesterone
정답:E
설명:
In postmenopausal women with severe vasomotor symptoms, hormone therapy (estrogen with progesterone in women with an intact uterus) is the most effective treatment. It improves hot flashes, sleep, and mood symptoms.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, Menopause Management:
"Combination hormone therapy is first-line for moderate to severe menopausal symptoms. Non-hormonal agents may be considered if contraindications exist." MCCQE1 Objectives - Gynecology > Menopause:
"Candidates must recognize the indication and benefits of hormone therapy for vasomotor symptoms in appropriate patients." Lifestyle changes (A) are supportive but insufficient. Primrose oil (C) lacks robust evidence. SSRIs (D) and clonidine (E) are second-line.
질문 # 154
A 3.5-year-old girl has developed a stutter in the last 3 months. She repeats whole words several times before finishing a sentence. Her paternal uncle had a severe stuttering issue as a child. She has reached the developmental milestones for her age. Her new sibling was born 4 months ago. Which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Cognitive behavior therapy.
- B. Play therapy for adjustment issues.
- C. Reassurance that this issue is common and transient.
- D. Audiology assessment.
- E. Speech therapy.
정답:C
설명:
This presentation describesnormal developmental dysfluency, which typically occurs between ages 2-5 and often worsens duringtimes of stress or change, such as a new sibling. It is characterized byword repetition and does not require intervention unless it persists >6 months, worsens, or causes distress.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Pediatrics, "Developmental and Behavioral Pediatrics" Section:
"Developmental stuttering is common between 2-5 years and often resolves without intervention.
Reassurance is appropriate unless there are signs of persistent or severe stuttering, secondary behaviors, or parental concern." MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 78-1: Development and Behavior):
"Candidates must recognize typical patterns of developmental speech dysfluency and differentiate them from pathological speech disorders. Observation and reassurance are often the appropriate initial step." Because the child is otherwise developing normally and the onset coincides with a known psychosocial stressor,reassuranceis the most appropriate step. Formal speech or behavioral therapy is not indicated at this time.
질문 # 155
A 73-year-old woman is seen in the office 2 weeks after a coronary bypass surgical procedure. The site of saphenous vein removal in the left thigh shows an area of tenderness and a 3 × 5 cm palpable mass. The skin is intact. Her temperature is 37.7 °C, hemoglobin is 110 g/L (125-167), and white blood cell count is 8 × 10#
/L (4-10). Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Femoral artery aneurysm
- B. Acute venous bleeding
- C. Wound hematoma
- D. Thrombophlebitis
- E. Wound abscess
정답:C
설명:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
A localized mass with tenderness at a recent surgical site, intact skin, low-grade temperature, and normal white count is most consistent with a wound hematoma. This is a common complication at saphenous vein graft harvest sites post-CABG.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Surgery / Cardiac:
"Wound hematoma presents as localized swelling and tenderness near recent surgical sites. Abscess is suggested by erythema, warmth, and systemic signs." MCCQE1 Objectives (Surgery > 50-2: Postoperative Complications):
"Candidates must identify and differentiate wound complications, including hematoma, seroma, and abscess." Abscess (E) would show redness, fluctuance, and fever. Aneurysm (B) is rare and pulsatile. Bleeding (A) would not form a stable mass 2 weeks post-op. Thrombophlebitis (C) usually involves superficial veins and erythema.
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질문 # 156
An 84-year-old woman is brought by ambulance to the emergency department after she was found by a neighbour. She had fallen, sustained a hip fracture, and was unable to move for the past 2 days. After starting rehydration, she reports hip pain and numbness and tingling in both her legs. Physical examination reveals faint pulses in both legs and severely swollen lower legs that are painful to palpation. The urine in the Foley catheter bag seems to be darker than normal. Which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Bilateral angiography of the lower legs.
- B. Surgical fixation of the patient's hip fracture.
- C. Myoglobin urine test.
- D. Bilateral Doppler ultrasonography of the legs.
- E. Compartment pressure measurements of the lower legs.
정답:E
설명:
This patient presents with signs of acute compartment syndrome (pain out of proportion, paresthesia, pallor, swelling, decreased pulses, and dark urine indicating rhabdomyolysis). Measuring compartment pressures is the diagnostic test of choice to confirm the diagnosis and guide urgent surgical fasciotomy.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Orthopedics:
"Acute compartment syndrome should be suspected in any patient with severe extremity pain, swelling, sensory deficits, and tense compartments. Confirm with compartment pressure measurements. Fasciotomy is indicated if pressure is >30 mmHg or within 30 mmHg of diastolic pressure." MCCQE1 Objectives (Surgery > 51-2: Limb Trauma):
"Candidates must diagnose acute compartment syndrome and initiate appropriate surgical referral after confirming with pressure measurements." Angiography and Doppler studies assess vascular compromise but are not the first step in suspected compartment syndrome. Fixing the hip (C) and testing myoglobin (E) are not diagnostic steps.
질문 # 157
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